Dear [brother],

I think these questions crystallise some important issues and this underscores an interesting link between distinct covenants. I offer them as food for thought and welcome counterquestions.

* Is circumcision now needed?

* Why then was it required, of Israel, of Moses?

* Why was Moses threatened with death for omitting it, Ex.4.24?

* Why then did Moses omit it all the way through the wilderness, and it was ordained for Joshua to renew it, Jos.5.2?

* Did younger Levites then minister to the Tabernacle in uncircumcision, Num.4.3, 23, 30, 8.21?

* Why was it a necessary preface to eating the Passover, the manna ceasing and the Angel Messiah appearing to him & the conquest of Jericho? But not conquering Sihon, Og or crossing the Jordan?

* Of which covenant was circumcision both the seal and the sign? Gen.17.11, Rom.4.11

* Why then does Christ attribute it to Moses first, then the fathers second, in Jn.7.22?

* Why does He say it is necessary that Moses' Law may not be broken? Jn.7.23

* Why was it absolutely necessary for taking the Passover, Ex.12.44,48 even for a Gentile slave?

* Could this mean the Passover was not observed by many, in the wilderness?

* Why does Paul say a Gentile who is now circumcised is obligated to keep the whole Law for justification, Gal.5.3? Why is Christ useless to him?

* However why is he less concerned about Jews being circumcised, calling it 'nothing' 1 Cor.7.17-18?

* What distinguishes baptism from circumcision apart from their relation in time to the cross, Col.2.11-13, Eph.2.11?

* Do you see how closely intertwined but sharply distinct (lit w a knife) the two covenants are?



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